PE Environmental Qualitative Practice Exam

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• Which federal agency is responsible for enforcing water quality standards under the Clean Water Act?
• During which biological growth phase is a conventional activated sludge process designed to operate?
• Under CERCLA, which entity is typically liable for cleanup costs?
• The permit application for a TSDF can be submitted using the prescribed form:
• Some substances, when combined, product different toxicity effects than the same substances do when alone. How would the toxicity effects from combined exposure to cigarette smoke and asbestos fibers be characterized?
• Which act addresses groundwater contamination and sets standards for drinking water?
• Which federal law requires testing of new chemicals for environmental and human health hazards?
• In landfill design, the witness zone is used to ascertain whether which liner is leaking?
• Under FIFRA, which entity is primarily responsible for enforcement?
• Which NOx control technique is commonly used to reduce NOx formation in internal combustion engines?
• NEPA requires analysis of environmental impacts; which document is typically prepared to analyze potential environmental consequences?
• Who can be held liable for the cleanup costs of a hazardous waste site under CERCLA?
• Gas chromatography is used to measure which type of compounds?
• Hardness is caused by polyvalent metallic cations such as
• The hazardous waste listings consist of all of the following except:
• What microbiological contaminant is most resistant to chlorine disinfection?
• Leachate formation in landfills is primarily due to rainwater percolating through waste. Which option lists this correctly?
• Which list includes wastes from nonspecific sources?
• Which provision is associated with the Safe Drinking Water Act of 1974?
• Trihalomethanes (THMs) are
• Which datum is used by the GPS constellation to provide x, y, and z coordinates?
• The EPA's solid waste management initiatives emphasize which benefits?
• Which of the following is not an example of municipal solid waste (MSW)?
• What comes after a Phase II environmental site assessment in many cases?
• In the SDWA definition, which option correctly states the criterion of 15 service connections or 25 people?
• What is the purpose of a Cumulative Impact Assessment in environmental impact studies?
• Which agency administers Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations?
• In an ion exchange system, which action would directly increase the hydraulic loading rate (HLR) if the exchanger bed area cannot be changed?
• Which federal law is primarily responsible for regulating the emission of air pollutants from stationary sources in the United States?
• The level below which no ill effects are observed is called which term?
• Underground storage tanks are regulated under which program?
• What is the incremental annual BOD mass loading to a wastewater treatment plant when conventional plumbing fixtures are replaced with water-conserving fixtures?
• Which document is used to accompany hazardous waste shipments and track their movement?
• What is the primary objective of hazardous waste minimization?
• Which statement about indoor air quality calculations under standard guidelines is true?
• The regulation of underground storage tanks is primarily designed around which principle?
• The regulations required in a permit application for a hazardous waste management facility are provided in which regulation?
• Which factor is NOT a primary parameter of incinerator efficiency?
• Which of the following has NO established ANSI standards?
• Which option is not one of the four EPA characteristics used to identify hazardous waste?
• Which statement about hazardous air pollutants is most accurate?
• Which of the following statements about radiation exposure is FALSE?
• What is the primary exposure route for radon in drinking water?
• What does hydraulic loading rate (HLR) stand for in the context of an ion exchange system?
• Ash from incineration of solid waste must generally be disposed of as what under RCRA?
• Which location is not an allowed site for burning off-specification used oil for energy recovery?
• What strategy is most consistent with hazardous waste minimization?
• How is the flash point defined?
• Which statement about confidence limits in exposure data is true?
• In the event of a serious accident or spill during hazardous waste transportation, the transporter must notify which organization?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between Subtitle C and Subtitle D?
• A transfer facility allows shipments to be held for up to how many days?
• If there is acidity in surface water, what happens?
• Which option is NOT among EPA's initiatives focusing on source reduction and recycling?
• Heavy metals in wastewater sludge fed to anaerobic digesters could cause:
• What physical data is typically NOT included on a safety data sheet (SDS)?
• Which statement best describes a controlled air incinerator?
• An example of physical treatment of a waste is:
• Open-loop recycling is best described as turning waste into a new product with altered properties. Which option matches this definition?
• Barometric pressure is synonymous with atmospheric pressure: True or False?
• Which emitted compounds most often occur as precursors to secondary pollutants?
• In environmental compliance, the acronym BACT stands for which of the following?
• A Phase 1 Environmental Site Assessment on a cattle ranch active from 1900 to 1935 identifies a facility formerly used for treating insect infestation of cattle. What compound would most likely be a potential environmental condition in the soil?
• Which statements about biological hazards are true?
• A characteristic waste can be made nonhazardous by:
• To achieve a minimum solids content of 15-20% for sludge disposal, municipal sludge must be dewatered to what range?
• Which entities enforce the Rivers and Harbors Act of 1899?
• Which statement best describes soil vapor extraction (SVE)?
• What is radon gas?
• Which of the following is true about electrostatic precipitators?
• Which statement about OSHA PELs is correct?
• Which compound is a chemical component of the smoke tubes used in ventilation studies?
• The witness zone is the section of a landfill located between which components?
• Which of the following is an example of a hazardous waste under RCRA Subtitle C?
• A TSDF would like to modify an existing permit application to incorporate design of groundwater monitoring wells; this can be accomplished using:
• Hazardous air pollutants are defined as those known or suspected to cause cancer or other serious health effects.
• Which remediation technique involves heating soil to desorb PCBs, typically performed off-site?
• What is the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations Maximum Contaminant Level (MCL) for Beta particles and photon emitters?
• What condition defines a non-attainment area?
• What is the main goal of the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)?
• If a public water supply relies on surface waters, which program must it adopt?
• Which environmental medium is most seriously affected by hazardous wastes?
• When does the material name on the safety data sheet (SDS) have to exactly match the name printed on the material container?
• In laminar flow, friction head loss is proportional to which?
• In the evaluated wastewater scenarios, which pairing correctly assigns Scenario I and Scenario II options?
• Which statement INACCURATELY characterizes the health effects of carbon monoxide exposure?
• The transport of hazardous waste from generation to treatment, storage, or disposal is documented through which system?
• The _____ list includes wastes from certain common industrial and manufacturing processes. Because the processes generating these wastes can occur in different sectors of industry, are known as wastes from nonspecific sources.
• The NPDES program is established under which act?
• Subtitle D primarily regulates nonhazardous solid waste.
• Which contaminant is removable from stormwater runoff through phytoextraction?
• The use and disposal of PCBs are regulated by which act?
• What is the on-site accumulation limit for Very Small Quantity Generators?
• Which organization provides the most current voluntary standard for meeting AAI requirements and describes the Phase 1 ESA performance?
• What is the focus of Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations (40 CFR)?
• A major rainfall event causes runoff into a public water system. Which contaminant does NOT require added caution?
• Which of the following is the correct ordering for groundwater risk at historical herbicide manufacturing sites? Atrazine, Dalapon, Endothall, Ethylbenzene
• In the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) process, what is the purpose of an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS)?
• What is the main purpose of stormwater control and containment devices in development projects?
• Which method is described as a structured process to gather expert opinions for forecasting?
• TLV-C refers to which of the following?
• What are the primary nuisance components of photochemical smog?
• Which ion is not typically associated with water hardness?
• What best describes the primary differences between Subtitle C and Subtitle D?
• OSHA PEL stands for which of the following?
• Which list correctly includes examples of universal wastes?
• In a biological wastewater treatment process, yield refers to what?
• An example of a Permit-by-Rule facility is:
• What size watershed is the rational method used?
• The criteria restricting land spreading of wastes with high cadmium and PCBs to protect groundwater are found in which subpart?
• Which NOx measurement technique uses chemiluminescence detection?
• NEPA paved the way for which federal agency?
• Which statement correctly describes the identity of ozone in photochemical smog?
• Dredged materials are regulated under which regulatory framework?
• Which federal law establishes the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) program to regulate point source discharges into waters of the United States?
• SQGs transporting hazardous waste for off-site treatment, storage, or disposal over distances greater than 200 miles may accumulate waste for up to how many days?
• The land spreading criteria for wastes high in cadmium and PCBs are designed to protect which resource?
• Bulk quantities of trichloroethane and sodium hydroxide are stored in the same space. If the two chemicals are allowed to mix, what would be the consequences?
• Where can the EPA's federal procurement guidelines for products manufactured from recycled materials be found?
• CERCLA stands for which act?
• Which CFR Part addresses metal finishing prior to 1985?
• What is the primary objective of the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA)?
• Which permit is commonly required for discharging pollutants into waters of the United States?
• If waste oil from automobiles is burned in power plants, this is an example of:
• Which process is used to remove sulfur oxides from exhaust streams?
• Under the Safe Drinking Water Act, what is the primary purpose of Maximum Contaminant Levels (MCLs)?
• Which item is not typically included on a safety data sheet?
• What is the National Priorities List (NPL) under CERCLA used for?
• LOEL stands for which term?
• A Phase 1 Environmental Site Assessment would typically identify what type of information about the site's history?
• Under RCRA, which Subpart governs enforcement of corrective actions?
• Which disposal method is most commonly used for municipal solid waste in the United States today?
• To measure PCBs or TCE in environmental samples, which technique is typically required?
• Which is not a goal of RCRA?
• Which statement describes the quantity limits for Small Quantity Generators?
• The presence of heavy metals in dewatered sludge would cause the following concern?
• What is the National Oil and Hazardous Substance Pollution Contingency Plan (NCP) commonly known as?
• All of the following are examples of universal wastes, except:
• Which contaminant is most likely not to threaten groundwater at a site formerly used to manufacture herbicides?
• Under the EPA's derived-from rule, residues from hazardous waste incineration are regulated as hazardous waste. Which statement is correct?
• Permit-as-a-shield protects a facility from:
• In a Phase I Environmental Site Assessment, which item is commonly considered non-scope?
• Large quantity generators are defined as those facilities that generate:
• What type of environmental permit is typically required for the construction of facilities that may impact wetlands?
• Under the 2001 example, failing to reclaim 75% of a returned material leads to it being regulated as what?
• TSDF stands for:
• The easiest, most cost effective and most widely used technique in solid waste management is:
• Which federal act regulates the management of hazardous waste in the United States?
• RCRA Subtitle D addresses solid non-hazardous waste. Which of the following is the correct subtitle for hazardous waste?
• Municipal WW sludges must be dewatered before landfill disposal to a minimum solids concentration of 15-20%.
• Which term describes a site that may hinder redevelopment due to contamination?
• The LDR treatment standards are based on which concept?
• Which CFR Part addresses metals treatment and recovery?
• Construction debris contaminated with hazardous waste is best disposed by which method?
• In a typical sequence of Phase I and Phase II environmental site assessments, what are the general purposes of Phase I and Phase II respectively?
• Under RCRA, a generator must obtain a permit to store waste over 90 days.
• Which act is the oldest federal environmental law in the United States and prohibits discharging refuse into or disrupting the flow of any port, harbor, or channel without a license or permit?
• What is the primary purpose of Emission Credit Trading (Offset)?
• A rural community water supply contaminated by wastes from a railroad derailment has a hazard index for adults greater than one but less than one for children. How should the exposure be characterized?
• If two investment opportunities have NPVs of $100,000 and $75,000, what is the most nearly the opportunity cost of choosing the higher-NPV project?
• Which scenario best justifies using confidence limits in exposure assessment?
• Which of the following is NOT an EPA solid waste management initiative focusing on source reduction and recycling?
• Which modeling approach uses a fixed grid to simulate pollutant concentrations over a region?
• Which incinerator type presents the most difficulty in meeting air emission limits?
• SW-846 is the standard reference for evaluating which type of methods?
• Land treatment involves applying waste to the soil surface; which of the following is not a mechanism that takes place?
• Which standard is designed for occupational health and safety management systems?
• The record retention period for hazardous waste records is at least how many years?
• Which CFR part provides the comprehensive used oil recycling program?
• Under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), what is the primary purpose of a manifest in the transportation of hazardous waste?
• The hazardous waste owner and operator must monitor the aquifer to determine if the leak exceeds the GWPS. Where in the aquifer should monitoring occur?
• Which pollutant is the major target for controlling ground-level ozone formation?
• In Phase 1 ESA, which statement about the final report is true?
• The unit mg/dscm is used to express the concentration of which in emissions?
• What law makes a purchaser responsible for cleaning up the toxic waste on land he bought?
• In the context of environmental permitting, what does NEPA stand for?
• Which diseases should be of special concern to environmental engineers when designing, operating, or managing a water supply project?
• What is the on-site accumulation limit for Small Quantity Generators?
• During anaerobic decomposition in wastewater treatment, which gas is produced?
• Which municipal solid waste component has the greatest typical heating value?
• What is the policy goal of emissions trading credits (ERCs) in terms of plant emissions?
• Under CERCLA, liability may be based on which criterion?
• Which statements about cumulative trauma disorders are true? I. risk of CTDs is associated with highly repetitive use of the same body part. II. damage from CTDs is usually noticed by workers within 24 hours of the activity. III. CTDs may affect tendons, tendon sheaths, soft tissue, nerves, bones, and spinal vertebrae. IV. high repetitiveness is defined as a cycle time of less than one minute. V. leaning over a workbench and resting the forearm on a hard edge or surface may lead to carpal tunnel.
• Which of the following is NOT a stated purpose of EPCRA?
• Which of the following would NOT result in an improved performance of secondary clarifiers?
• Which agency has regulatory authority for radon gas exposure in homes, schools, and other buildings?
• Does a developed property likely require stormwater control and containment devices if the pre-development flow is 1 m3/s and post-development flow is 1.5 m3/s?
• Who typically owns a public water supply system?
• Which description best describes hazardous air pollutants (HAPs)?
• All of the following are the exempt recyclable hazardous wastes, except:
• If a facility starts with 200 lbs of material and by year end less than 150 lbs are reclaimed or sent off site, the material can be regulated as what?
• Which agency is the lead for granting section 404 permits?
• Under the Clean Water Act, what is the purpose of Total Maximum Daily Loads (TMDLs)?
• Which statement best describes THMs in drinking water?
• Under the Clean Water Act of 1972, which action is unlawful without a permit?
• Which phrase describes the presence or likely presence of a hazardous substance on a property under conditions that indicate a release or threat of a release?
• The preferred field instrument used in lead-based paint inspections is:
• Bottom ash removal from a combustion chamber may be considered hazardous waste via which rule?
• Which performance standard is NOT included among the risk-based performance standards for chemical facilities as established by the DHS?
• The maximum contaminant levels (MCLs) under the Safe Drinking Water Act are designed to protect the safety of which resource?
• Municipal WW sludges must have what minimum percent solids to be accepted for landfill disposal?
• Which set of activities is commonly included in a Phase I Environmental Site Assessment?
• Which activity is typical of a Phase II Environmental Site Assessment?
• In evaluating air sample results, confidence limits can be used to determine which of the following?
• Particulate emissions (mg/dscm) from combustion units are limited to what value?
• The comprehensive used oil recycling program is implemented under which CFR Part?
• Which statistic would help determine how uncertain the estimate of the average exposure is?
• The document titled Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste: Physical/Chemical Methods is commonly referred to as:
• The CAA Amendments of 1990 introduced large-scale changes to the CAA, including provisions addressing global air pollution. Which topic is addressed in Title III?
• Primary wastewater treatment targets the removal of what?
• What parameter is used to evaluate the bioconcentration of a toxic contaminant in fish tissue?
• Alkalinity is defined as
• RCRA enforcement program is implemented by:
• CERCLA primarily provides authority to address releases of hazardous substances and to cleanup what kind of sites?
• The amount of soluble lead in SW increases with:
• What is the traditional approach employed by the EPA for air pollution control?
• A modification class that is used to modify an existing permit to incorporate groundwater monitoring wells is:
• Which statement correctly defines TLV-TWA (Threshold Limit Value - Time-Weighted Average)?
• In hospital waste, which category contains needles and scalpels?
• In a wastewater treatment plant, how much BOD is removed during primary treatment?
• Head loss due to friction is proportional to velocity squared in which regime?
• If a set of air samples has a wide confidence interval for the mean exposure, what does this indicate?
• Which of the following is likely to have a higher concentration in surface water than in groundwater?
• A preliminary dispersion modeling analysis of emissions from gas-fired engines at a pipeline compressor station reveals that ambient air exceedences occur outside the station's property line. To obtain an air quality permit for the station, the modeling analysis must show no modeled exceedences. What would be the best alternative for eliminating the modeled exceedances?
• Which of the following is a characteristic of hazardous waste as defined by RCRA?
• National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAP) regulate emissions of which substances?
• Which parameter set is used in determining how to process municipal solid waste? I. particle size II. moisture content III. density IV. heating value
• Which geophysical methods are commonly used to sense hazardous waste underground?
• Integrated waste management refers to all of the following except:
• According to the ventilation standard for indoor air quality, which statement correctly identifies sources of contaminants for indoor air requirements?
• What respiratory protection equipment is required to enter an abandoned UST to remove sludge contaminated with an unknown hydrocarbon?
• Which standard defines attainment status for a region in air quality management?
• Construction debris that is contaminated with hazardous waste constituents can be best disposed off by:
• The 6-nines rule in incinerators and boilers refers to which level of emission reduction?
• In the used oil specifications, which parameter is tested to assess flammability?
• A worker in a manhole working on electrical copper cables is left unsupervised for 15 minutes and then found floating in wastewater. White foam is seen at the mouth. Should the worker be given bottled water to drink?
• In a cross current-flow scrubber, what happens to gas velocity and efficiency when the cross-sectional area increases?
• Which statement best defines an atmospheric inversion?
• Secondary air pollutants are produced as a result of reactions that primary air pollutants undergo. Which of the following are included as examples?
• Which criterion does the EPA use to classify hazardous waste?
• For asbestos remediation projects, NESHAP (40 CFR 61.150) regulates:
• The philosophy behind hazardous waste regulation under RCRA is oriented toward which concept?
• Which security concerns did the Department of Homeland Security identify related to chemicals?
• In a capital budgeting decision, if NPVs are $100,000 and $75,000, which figure represents the opportunity cost of choosing the higher-NPV project?
• EPA assesses the corrective action program using environmental indicators. All of the following are the indicators, except:
• High molecular weight and strongly hydrophobic organic contaminants partition into soils containing which component?
• Which technology is commonly used to remove NOx from exhaust and typically uses ammonia as a reducing agent?
• In GPS terminology, which method provides corrections during observation via a base station to improve accuracy?
• What does Threshold Limit Value (TLV) primarily refer to?
• What are the six primary air pollutants as defined by the NAAQS?
• Which of the following is not an approved method of land disposal for hazardous wastes?
• Why has the EPA shifted toward basin-wide management for surface waters?
• What role does the National Contingency Plan (NCP) play in CERCLA?
• Which statement about primary and secondary standards is true?
• Which statement correctly distinguishes autotrophs from heterotrophs?
• During a wastewater 24-hour sampling protocol, which constituent is collected as a grab sample?
• Which of the following is an example of a hazardous waste combustor?
• Which item below is a Phase 2 ESA component?
• Which hazardous waste processes are regulated under RCRA?
• Which remediation technology is most effective for removing high concentrations of low-solubility petroleum compounds from containment soil?
• Under the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations, which substance is NOT a primary contaminant?
• What is the primary purpose of the Occupational Safety and Health Act enacted in 1970?
• Which statement best reflects the Clean Water Act's treatment of nonpoint source pollution?
• Which of the following is not a corrosion protection measure?
• A transfer facility is described as a site consisting of loading docks and storage areas where shipments can be held for up to how many days?
• Solid waste recycling reduces which pollutant emissions?
• Off-specification used oil may be burned for energy recovery in all of the following locations, except:
• Under the Safe Drinking Water Act definition, a public water system is defined as having which combination?
• If a hazard index is greater than one for adults but less than one for children, how should the exposure be characterized?
• An atmospheric inversion occurs when ambient air temperature is cooler near the ground than at elevation. true or false?
• Which gases are commonly present in confined spaces requiring ventilation at a rate of at least 4 volumes per hour?
• What is the most appropriate method for treating solid waste containing about 4% pharmaceutical residues?
• Which agency administers the Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response Worker Protection Standard (HAZWOPER)?
• Which statement best describes a derived rule in hazardous waste regulation?
• In GPS accuracy metrics, which term refers to the geometric strength of satellite configuration affecting accuracy?
• Which contaminant is UNLIKELY to impact the safety of drinking water after a major farm runoff event into a nearby public water system?
• In an ion exchange system, increasing the hydraulic loading rate (HLR) can be achieved by which measure?
• Subtitle C is associated with regulation of which category of waste?
• The Delphi Technique is used to:
• In Scenario I of the wastewater evaluation, which element is assumed not feasible?
• Which step in risk characterization is often focused on describing the probability and severity of adverse effects in exposed populations?
• Which disposal method involves injecting waste into deep wells?
• Which statement correctly contrasts RCRA Subtitle C and Subtitle D?
• How does the US EPA characterize hazardous waste?
• Which stage of the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process involves public participation and the gathering of input?
• Which PCB remediation method involves ex situ desorption by heating soil?
• If the surrounding air cools at the same rate as the plume, what is the expected tendency of the plume?
• Medical wastes are subjected to:
• Regarding the Recommended Weight Limit (RWL), which statement is true?
• Under LDR program, which group is not generally covered?
• The best technology available for treating small volumes of many chemicals from a laboratory is:
• Which method uses chemiluminescence to monitor NOx?
• How will increasing the cross-sectional area influence the efficiency of a cross current-flow scrubber for air pollution control?
• Petroleum refining wastes fall under the following listed waste:
• Under Emission Credit Trading Netting, credits can be earned and used for plant expansion when what condition is met?
• Chronic health effects of human exposure to volatile organic compounds in indoor environments include which of the following?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between CERCLA and the NCP?
• What size watershed is the NCRS Curve Number method used?
• In the formation of organic compounds, which description corresponds to oxidation?
• Which statement best describes the health effects mechanism of carbon monoxide?
• Which lapse rate is associated with unstable conditions that promote pollutant dispersion?
• What is the level of exposure to a toxic chemical that a population can be assumed to endure without appreciable risk resulting?
• Land Disposal Restrictions (LDR) program generally applies to all of the following except:
• What are the time limits for Small Quantity Generators?
• What is the generally accepted technique for measuring attainments with the National Ambient Air Quality Standard for NOx?
• The _____ approach to pollution control allows a company to bid for the right to discharge a certain pollutant.
• Which act requires safety data sheets for hazardous materials?
• Under Netting, credits can be earned by applying improved control technologies and used during expansion if there is no significant net increase in emissions. Which option describes this condition?
• Under the bubble concept each plant's complex pollution is treated as a whole for the focus of regulation, rather than each point source being licensed for a certain amount of pollutant emission.
• What is the time limit for Large Quantity Generators?
• All of the following are examples of source reduction, except:
• What geophysical measuring technique would be used to assess the downhole vertical continuity of a clay stratum?
• What is the on-site accumulation limit for Large Quantity Generators?
• Under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), which requirement applies to hazardous wastes?
• Which statement defines Large Quantity Generators in terms of quantity limits?
• Which organism uses CO2 as a carbon source?
• In used oil specifications, flash point should be below what degF?
• In hydrogen sulfide poisoning, which action is correct?
• What is the bubble policy for emission reduction credits under the emission trading program?
• A grab sample must be collected for stormwater discharge permit applications within how many minutes after discharge?
• In a subadiabatic lapse rate, how does the plume behave and what is the dispersion tendency?
• What is the maximum annual whole body radiation dose allowed for radiation workers?
• In risk assessment, which component describes the dose-response relationship?
• SARA introduced which defense to CERCLA liability?
• MSDSs are required under which act?
• Which statement best describes the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)?
• Which factor most strongly contributes to cumulative trauma disorders by causing repetitive strain?
• Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) are disposed of by which methods?
• Which of the following are important factors for determining incinerator efficiency?
• Which of the following is an example of an inherently waste-like material?
• Dioxins are
• Under CERCLA, what is the term used to describe the list of hazardous substances for which releases must be reported?
• What are the time limits for Very Small Quantity Generators?
• Which two constituents are the most important components of acid rain?
• In toxicology, the highest level of exposure at which none of the test animals is affected is called which term?
• In the EPA's pollution-prevention hierarchy, which option is emphasized first for managing hazardous waste?
• All universal waste handlers may not accumulate universal waste for a period over:
• Integrated waste management components include landfilling, composting, and waste combustion; which of the following is NOT considered a component?
• Solid waste disposal permits are issued by which level of government?
• Which of the following waste is regulated under RCRA Subtitle C hazardous waste regulation?
• Radon exposure is associated with which health effect?
• Which of the following is NOT considered a point source of water pollution?
• Under RCRA, the generator classification for a facility that generates 700 gal/month and stores waste onsite for six months is:
• A hazardous ash residue from incinerating solvent waste is regulated under the derived-from rule. Which statement is correct?
• Regulation of underground storage tanks primarily aims to prevent leaks that could contaminate what?
• According to NIOSH, an atmosphere is oxygen deficient when the oxygen content is less than:
• Traffic data in metropolitan areas show bimodal patterns with morning and evening commutes. Which plot is most appropriate to visualize this distribution?
• A surveyor has collected GPS points in a narrow canyon with heavy vegetation, processing shows high dilution of precision. What is the most likely cause of the error?
• What does the term Superfund refer to in U.S. environmental policy?
• Which code is NOT relevant to safety management systems?
• What does the acronym NPDES stand for?
• Which CFR Part addresses metal finishing after 1985?
• What is the primary purpose of a detention basin in stormwater management?
• According to the EPA, leaking tanks and pipes may be repaired as long as the repairs meet industry codes and standards for USTs. Which organization publishes such codes and standards?
• To determine whether a leak exceeds GWPS, monitoring should be performed at which part of the aquifer?
• The organic components typically found in MSW are:
• A brownfield site is best described as which of the following?
• All of the following are exclusions from the definition of hazardous waste except:
• A reference dose is the level of toxic exposure...
• Which air quality modeling technique is commonly used to assess dispersion from a single point source?
• Which act provides cradle-to-grave regulation of hazardous waste?
• According to EPA protocol, during a wastewater 24-hour composite sampling event, what must be taken as a grab sample?
• Which set of statements about heat and cold stress is true? I. II. III. IV. V.
• What does the auto ignition temperature describe?
• Which of the following is categorized as a solid waste?
• In Scenario II, what soil condition is assumed to allow for a soakaway?
• The primary planning, regulating, and implementing entities for nonhazardous solid waste management (e.g., household garbage) are managed by which level of government?
• Which of the following is not a recognized TLV designation?
• The rules governing the transporters of hazardous waste fall under which subtitle?
• Which of the following is NOT typically considered municipal solid waste?
• Which agency enforces regulations for the transportation of hazardous waste by highway?
• Emission Credit Trading Offset enables industrial expansion by what mechanism?
• In which flow regime is friction head loss proportional to velocity rather than velocity squared?
• Which description best captures the purpose of a confidence limit in exposure assessment?
• What average particle diameters define the lower and upper particulate matter as a pollutant?
• Which by-product group is formed from the reaction of chlorine with organic matter in drinking water?
• Small quantity generators can accumulate _____ of hazardous waste at any time.
• Which pollutant is NOT included in the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)?
• The best technology available for treating small volumes of many chemicals from a laboratory is which?
• Regulations restricting land application of metals exist primarily to keep metals out of the human food chain.
• Which of the following makes up the least percentage of landfill volume?
• Measured by volume, which pollutant is typically the largest contributor to surface water contamination?
• Which act is commonly referred to as the Superfund law?
• Used oil is hazardous waste if it contains more than 1000 ppm of total halogens.
• Which term best describes environmental due diligence findings that indicate the potential presence of hazardous substances on a property due to releases?
• A substance poisonous to humans by interfering with normal body physiology is called which of the following?
• Which item is typically included in a safety data sheet for chemical handling?
• Used oil burned for energy recovery containing less than 50 ppm PCBs is regulated under which regulation?
• What federal agency oversees the implementation of the National Contingency Plan (NCP)?
• Under CERCLA, the list of hazardous substances that require reporting is commonly known by what name?
• Post-closure cost estimates are based on projected costs for an entire post-closure period of how many years?
• Which permit program regulates discharges into navigable waters under the Clean Water Act?
• When carcinogens are considered, the EPA generally takes which approach?
• The solid waste program falls under which Subpart?
• Which of the following is addressed by the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)?
• The greatest volume of hazardous waste generated from medical activities at hospitals and health centers is primarily made up of which category?
• The LDR treatment standards are based on:
• The hazardous waste management program falls under which subpart?
• What does a superadiabatic lapse rate indicate about plume dispersion?
• What is the minimum time period to retain records of hazardous waste generation and disposal?
• Bioaerosol sampling methods are applicable to all of the following EXCEPT:
• The TLV-STEL (Threshold Limit Value-Short-Term Exposure Limit) corresponds to which exposure duration?
• What are the basic elements of the quantitative risk assessment process?
• Which option is NOT a geophysical method typically used to sense hazardous waste underground?
• Radon exposure is most clearly associated with which health effect?
• Which of the following is an exempt recyclable hazardous waste according to the material?
• Leachate is formed due to which circumstance?
• Which of the following statements is true about bottom ash with respect to regulatory status?
• Which of the following is NOT a solid waste?
• RCRA corrective actions are enforced under:
• A water sample has a TDS concentration of 425 mg/L and a specific conductivity of 32 µS. Which statement best describes the solids?
• PCBs are regulated under which act?
• Which option is NOT a valid use of confidence limits in exposure assessment?
• A Total Maximum Daily Load (TMDL) represents what?
• Which stage of the Environmental Impact Assessment process involves the identification of potential environmental impacts and their significance?
• Which statement accurately describes viruses?
• Plastic bottles recycled into drainage pipes illustrate which recycling type?
• Transport of microorganisms to groundwater depends mostly on:
• Hazardous waste combustor efficiency is based on which technology standard?
• Which are the appropriate units of measurement for the biological effects of radiation on a human being?
• Under FIFRA, most enforcement is conducted by which entity?
• What is the purpose of EPCRA (SARA Title III)?
• Which statement best describes PELs?
• An example of a derived rule is:
• What is the most serious environmental effect posed by hazardous wastes?
• Rules regarding the transportation of hazardous waste from the point of origin to the ultimate disposal site are governed by which agency?
• Which commercial modeling package is NOT used to simulate a reverse osmosis plant?
• Which of the following best describes what confidence limits help determine in exposure data?
• Which parameter most directly determines the specific growth rate of bacteria in a wastewater treatment plant?
• Point source discharges are regulated under which program?
• Which NOx control technique lowers NOx formation by reducing combustion temperature through exhaust gas recirculation?
• Under RCRA, which requirement involves maintaining records of the creation, transfer, and disposal of hazardous wastes?
• Underground injection control wells are regulated under which environmental statute?
• Which statement is true about a Total Maximum Daily Load (TMDL)?
• Underground injection control wells are permitted under which act?
• Which statement best predicts the perceived sound reduction of acoustic pipe insulation?
• Enhancing natural attenuation of tetrachloroethene contaminated sites can be achieved by introducing which compound?
• SARA established All Appropriate Inquiry (AAI) to provide protection for which situation?
• All of the following are criteria used by EPA to characterize a hazardous waste, except:
• According to common engineering formulas, friction head loss is sometimes proportional to velocity rather than velocity squared in which case?
• What is the primary guiding objective of hazardous waste regulation?
• Which organism uses organic material as a carbon source?
• Point source discharges are regulated under which program?
• A facility's permit classifies the discharge under CFR Title 40, Part 413. After changes, the original facility and a warehouse have different CFR parts. Under which parts are they regulated?
• Which of the following is the correct pairing for heat stress indicators used to monitor safety?
• Which substance is not regulated under NAAQS as a primary pollutant?
• Which item is a component of Phase 1 Environmental Site Assessment?
• Which form is used for submitting a TSDF permit application?
• What is the most commonly used method of solid waste disposal?
• Treatment, storage, and disposal facilities fall under which subtitle?
• Which statement correctly describes the quantity limits for Very Small Quantity Generators?
• Boilers and furnaces are governed under which Subpart?
• An example of an industrial waste is:
• Primary treatment of wastewater targets the removal of what?
• Spill Prevention, Control, and Countermeasures (SPCC) regulations established spill prevention procedures for:
• What is the primary difference in the dose–response relationship when comparing carcinogens with noncarcinogens?
• Which subtitle of RCRA addresses hazardous waste handling and disposal?
• Under CERCLA, who can the EPA compel to perform cleanup?
• Which GPS term refers to a rover receiving position corrections at the time of survey from a GPS base station?
• Which option defines the 'lower and upper flexible membrane liners' in a landfill design?
• A sludge with high heavy metals content may eliminate land application as a viable disposal option.
• Which project management tool is a bar chart that shows the number and type of resources needed throughout a project?
• Under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA), what term is commonly used to describe parties responsible for the release of hazardous substances into the environment?
• Which statement best describes primary pollutants?
• Where are the criteria to designate solid waste disposal facilities and practices that would not pose adverse effects to human health and the environment located?